Can you please assist me wheather an ordinary share can determine the percentage of ownership?
For example: My company "X" have 50000 authorised share capital with per value $1US each, and the company sold 2 ordinary shares to 2 different shareholders. 1 ordinary share belongs to "A" and the other belong to "B" shareholders.
My Company "X" owns 49998 shares and "A" & "B" have 1 share each.
Does this have something to do with the percentage of ownership and generaly, do ordinary shares involved in the ownership?