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Capital Gains Tax Issue

I have a client that has receievd some shares by way of a deed of variation that their father made to his father will.

My client has now sold these shares in the 16-17 tax year.  I have the sale proceeds and other incidental costs but I am wondering what value I use for the purhase price, as they were never purchased  by my client simply acquired by their father making a deed of variation to transfer the shares initially left to to  him.

In which case the purchase price would be nil although there was a cost to them.  Or the date they were valued when the deed of variation was agreed rather than the date of death.


Any help would be appreciated.


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