I have a client that has receievd some shares by way of a deed of variation that their father made to his father will.
My client has now sold these shares in the 16-17 tax year. I have the sale proceeds and other incidental costs but I am wondering what value I use for the purhase price, as they were never purchased by my client simply acquired by their father making a deed of variation to transfer the shares initially left to to him.
In which case the purchase price would be nil although there was a cost to them. Or the date they were valued when the deed of variation was agreed rather than the date of death.
Any help would be appreciated.